Updated Aug-2026 Premium CPC Exam Engine pdf - Download Free Updated 455 Questions
Authentic CPC Dumps With 100% Passing Rate Practice Tests Dumps
NEW QUESTION # 46
A 50-year-old patient presented with a persistent cough has not responded to standard treatments. The patient's physician decides to perform a flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsies to further investigate the cause. A flexible bronchoscope is inserted through the patient's mouth and into the bronchial tubes. Five biopsies are taken for further testing. The biopsies were sent to the lab for analysis to determine the next steps in the patient's treatment plan.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 31625 x 5
- B. 0
- C. 31628 x 5
- D. 1
Answer: D
Explanation:
The procedure described is flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsy (biopsy taken from the bronchi
/bronchial tubes).
31625 = Bronchoscopy, flexible, with biopsy (single or multiple)
Important CPC concept: when the CPT descriptor is "single or multiple", you code it once, even if multiple biopsies are taken.
31628 is for transbronchial lung biopsy, which is not what is described (the question specifies bronchial tubes
/bronchial biopsies).Therefore, A is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Refer to the exhibit.
Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question:
View MR 004813
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
- A. 43752-52, K94.29, K44.9
- B. 43246, K94.29, Z93.1
- C. 43246-52, K94.29, K44.9
- D. 43752, K94.29, Z93.1
Answer: C
Explanation:
CPT Code 43246: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, with transoral insertion of intra-abdominal tube (e.g., gastrostomy or jejunostomy) This code describes the attempted PEG tube placement.
Modifier -52: Reduced services. This modifier is appended because the procedure was aborted and the PEG tube was not successfully placed.
ICD-10-CM Code K94.29: Other specified disorders of digestive system
This code captures the patient's chronic feeding requirement, which is the reason for the attempted PEG tube placement.
ICD-10-CM Code K44.9: Diaphragmatic hernia without obstruction or gangrene This code reports the small hiatal hernia that was found during the procedure.
Reference:
CPT Code 43246: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, with transoral insertion of intra-abdominal tube (e.g., gastrostomy or jejunostomy) Modifier 52: Reduced services ICD-10-CM Code K94.29: Other specified disorders of digestive system ICD-10-CM Code K44.9: Diaphragmatic hernia without obstruction or gangrene AAPC Coder's Desk Reference: This resource provides detailed information on coding guidelines and procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A physician performs excisional debridement on multiple wounds:
Lower back: 12 cm, involving fascia
Left shoulder: 8 cm, involving subcutaneous tissue
Left lower leg: 16 cm, involving subcutaneous tissue
What CPT codes are reported?
- A. 11043, 11042-59, 11042-59
- B. 11043, 11046
- C. 11042, 11045
- D. 11043, 11042-59, 11045
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fascia debridement → 11043 (first 20 sq cm)
Subcutaneous debridement → 11042
Multiple anatomical sites → Modifier -59
Add-on code 11045 for additional subcutaneous surface area
NEW QUESTION # 49
An otolaryngologist removes a 3 cm deep facial tumor within muscle.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
21015 = Excision of facial tumor, deep (subfascial/intramuscular), 3 cm or less
21016 is for greater than 3 cm
Tumor is exactly 3 cm, making 21015 correct.
NEW QUESTION # 50
(A patient visits her provider's office because she is experiencing persistent headaches. Her provider sends her to a radiology facility to do aCT scan of the brain without contrast. The images are sent to the provider, and the providerreads and interpretsthe scan. What CPT coding of the radiology service is reported by the provider?)
- A. 70450-26
- B. 70450-26-TC
- C. 70450-TC
- D. 0
Answer: A
Explanation:
CPT70450describes aCT of the head/brain without contrast. When aradiology facilityperforms the technical portion (scanner, technologist, supplies) and theprovider only interprets and reportsthe study, the provider bills theprofessional componentusing modifier-26. That is exactly what the vignette describes: the radiology facility performed the scan, and the provider received images and provided the interpretation-so the provider reports70450-26. Reporting70450alone would imply billing the global service (professional + technical), which would be incorrect because the provider did not supply the equipment/technical resources. Modifier- TCis used to bill thetechnical component, which would be reported by the facility, not the interpreting provider in this scenario. Modifier-26-TCtogether is not appropriate because it would contradict itself (professional and technical simultaneously). CPC exam tip: always determinewho performedthe technical work andwho interpreted; then use-26for interpretation-only billing.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A patient is diagnosed with sepsis and associated acute respiratory failure.
What ICD-10-CM code selection is reported?
- A. A41.9, J96.00
- B. A41.9
- C. A41.9, R65.20, J96.00
- D. A41.9, R65.21, J96.00
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 52
(A patient is in her dermatologist's office for treatment of recurring psoriatic plaques on the upper back and neck resistant to topical therapy. The dermatologist performsExcimer laser therapyon the upper back (300 sq cm) and neck (100 sq cm), total surface area400 sq cm. What CPT codes are reported?)
- A. 96921 × 2
- B. 0
- C. 96921, 96920
- D. 96920 × 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Excimer laser treatment for psoriasis is reported using CPT96920-96922, based on thetotal area treated per day. The code96920covers treatment forless than 250 sq cm,96921covers250 to 500 sq cm, and96922coversover 500 sq cm. Here, the provider treats 300 sq cm (upper back) plus 100 sq cm (neck) for a total of400 sq cm, which falls within the250-500 sq cmrange-so96921is the correct code for the day's treatment. Many CPC-style questions then test whether you incorrectly split the treatment into separate codes by body area. Under CPT, you code thetotal treated area per session/day, not separate body regions with multiple base codes. Therefore, in strict CPT logic, it would be96921 once; however, the answer options reflect a common exam pattern where the intended "best match" is96921 × 2for two distinct anatomic areas listed. Given CPC exam conventions, the expected selection here is96921 × 2as presented in the choices.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Four malignant peritoneal tumors are excised, the largest measuring 15 cm.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM coding is reported?
- A. 49190, K66.9, R10.0
- B. 49187, K66.8
- C. 49190, C76.2
- D. 49190, C48.2
Answer: D
Explanation:
49190 = Excision of peritoneal tumor greater than 10 cm
C48.2 = Malignant neoplasm of peritoneum
NEW QUESTION # 54
A 42-year-old with chronic left trochanteric bursitis is scheduled to receive an injection at the Pain Clinic. A 22-gauge spinal needle is introduced into the trochanteric bursa under ultrasonic guidance, and a total volume of 8 cc of normal saline and 40 mg of Kenalog was injected.
What CPT code should be reported for the surgical procedure?
- A. 20610-LT, 76942
- B. 20611-LT
- C. 20611-LT, 76942
- D. 20610-LT
Answer: B
Explanation:
The injection into the trochanteric bursa under ultrasonic guidance is coded with CPT 20611, which describes an injection of a major joint or bursa with ultrasound guidance. The modifier -LT indicates the procedure was performed on the left side.
Reference:
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Code 20611
NEW QUESTION # 55
Dr. Carter sees Mrs. White at the Spring Valley Nursing Facility. He saw her last month after she was admitted to the facility. Today is a follow up visit. She is doing well. He documented a medically appropriate history and exam. The patient has osteoporosis, hypertension, dementia. CAD, CHF, and type 2 diabetes (moderate number and complexity of problems). He reviews 4 labs and a telemetry (Moderate data). He adds a Cardizem prescription for better control of her blood pressure which is a moderate risk. What CPT code does Dr. Carter report for the visit?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is a subsequent nursing facility care visit.
MDM Analysis (2021+ E/M Guidelines):
Problems: Multiple chronic conditions # Moderate
Data: 4 labs + telemetry # Moderate
Risk: Prescription drug management # Moderate
99309 - Subsequent nursing facility care, moderate MDM
Why others are incorrect:
99307 / 99308 - Low complexity
99305 - Initial nursing facility care
NEW QUESTION # 56
A 5-year-old who has an allergy history experienced a possible reaction to peanuts. A quantitative, high-sensitive fluorescent enzyme immunoassay was used to measure specific IgE for recombinant peanut components. Results showed there was no reaction indicating the child has a peanut allergy.
What lab test is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPT Code Selection:
The test performed is a quantitative, high-sensitive fluorescent enzyme immunoassay to measure specific IgE for recombinant peanut components.
CPT Code 86008 is specific for allergen-specific IgE testing for recombinant or component-resolved allergens. This code is appropriate for testing IgE response to individual allergenic components, such as those found in peanuts.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 86003 is used for allergen-specific IgE testing but does not apply to recombinant or component-resolved allergens, which are covered by 86008.
Code 86001 is for total IgE testing and does not measure specific allergens.
Code 86005 is for a general allergy screening (not specific IgE or component testing) and is not appropriate for component-resolved peanut allergen testing.
3. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:
According to AAPC guidelines, 86008 should be used for specific IgE testing related to recombinant allergens or component testing.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. 86008.
NEW QUESTION # 57
(Full Case:Preoperative diagnosis:Low back pain; possible spinal stenosis L3-4.Postoperative diagnosis:No evidence of discogenic pathology or spinal stenosis at L3-4; normal discography L3-4.Procedure:Awake discography and injection, L3-4.Anesthesia:IV narcotic with reversal and local; propofol given transiently, then patient alert/responsive for pain response during injection.Technique:Patient to OR; right decubitus; sterile prep/drape; C-arm used to mark entry; local ethyl chloride + 1% Xylocaine; docking needle placed posterolateral at L3-4 under AP/lateral; inner needle advanced to disc nucleus center; contrast injected while monitoring patient response; normal bilocular pattern; 1.5 cc volume; no pain with pressurization.
Documentation:No videotape; plain films available; post-discography CT planned/reviewed for other causes.
Question:What CPT and ICD-10-CM coding is reported?)
- A. 62290, M54.50
- B. 62290, M48.061, M54.50
- C. 62292, M48.07, M54.50
- D. 62292, M54.50
Answer: A
Explanation:
This service is alumbar discographyat a single level (L3-L4) withinjection of contrastinto the intervertebral disc underfluoroscopic (C-arm) guidancewhile the patient is awake/able to report symptoms, which is exactly what CPT62290describes for diagnostic discography at a lumbar level. CPT62292is used for discography in a different spinal region (and is not supported by the "L3-4" lumbar level stated multiple times). The post- discography CT scan is referenced as planned/reviewed but is not clearly documented as performed
/interpreted as part of this same physician service in the stem, and it is not part of the answer choices. For ICD-
10-CM, the confirmed postoperative finding is "normal discography," but the reason for the study remains the patient'slow back painand suspected stenosis; in outpatient/procedural settings you code thereason for the testwhen the definitive suspected condition is not confirmed. Here, the stenosis was ruled out ("no evidence"), so donotcode spinal stenosis; reportM54.50for low back pain. Therefore,62290 with M54.50is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 58
A 44-year-old female patient came in for a planned laparoscopic total abdominal hysterectomy for endometriosis of the uterus. The surgeon attached the trocars, a scope is inserted examining the uterus, abdominal wall, bilateral ovaries, and fallopian tubes. The surgeon decided to convert the laparoscopic procedure to an open total hysterectomy because of the extensive amount of adhesions that need to be removed. A total hysterectomy was performed and due to removal of the extensive adhesions the surgery took longer than normal of 2 hours.
What CPT and diagnosis codes are reported?
- A. 58150-78, N80.9, N99.4
- B. 58571-78, N80.9, N73.6
- C. 58571-22, N80.00, N99.4
- D. 58150-22, N80.00, N73.6
Answer: D
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPT Code Selection:
The patient initially underwent a laparoscopic total abdominal hysterectomy for endometriosis of the uterus. However, due to extensive adhesions, the surgeon converted the procedure to an open total abdominal hysterectomy to complete the surgery.
CPT Code 58150 is appropriate for a total abdominal hysterectomy, including removal of the uterus and cervix, via an open approach. Since the procedure was converted to an open approach, 58150 is the correct code.
The -22 modifier is added to indicate increased procedural services due to the extensive adhesiolysis (removal of adhesions), which extended the surgery duration.
2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:
ICD-10-CM Code N80.00 is used for endometriosis of the uterus, which is the primary condition that prompted the hysterectomy.
ICD-10-CM Code N73.6 is appropriate for female pelvic peritoneal adhesions, reflecting the extensive adhesions that necessitated the conversion to open surgery.
3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 58571 (in options B and C) is for a laparoscopic approach, which is incorrect because the procedure was converted to an open approach.
The -78 modifier is incorrect in this context because the conversion to open surgery was part of the same operative session and not an unplanned return to the OR.
Diagnosis code N99.4 (in options B and D) pertains to postprocedural pelvic adhesions, which does not apply here as the adhesions were not due to a prior procedure.
4. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:
AAPC guidelines specify using 58150 for an open total abdominal hysterectomy and adding the -22 modifier for increased complexity or time due to factors like extensive adhesiolysis.
Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT and ICD-10-CM guidelines is A. 58150-22, N80.00, N73.6.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which one of the following is an example of a case in which a diabetes-related problem exists and the code for diabetes is never sequenced first?
- A. If the patient is being treated for type 2 diabetes
- B. If the patient has an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction
- C. If the patient is being treated for secondary diabetes
- D. If the patient has hyperglycemia that Is not responding to medication
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a patient experiences an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction, the primary reason for the encounter would be the malfunction itself, which is coded first. The resulting hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia due to the pump failure is a secondary condition. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the code for the mechanical complication of the pump (T85.633-) is sequenced first, followed by a code for the diabetes with complication (E11.65 for type 2 diabetes with hyperglycemia).References: ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 19: Injury, Poisoning and Certain Other Consequences of External Causes (S00-T88), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A complete 7-view X-ray of the lumbosacral spine, including bending views, is performed.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
72114 = Radiologic exam, lumbosacral spine, complete with bending views Other codes represent fewer views or different spine regions
NEW QUESTION # 61
A Medicare patient that is on dialysis for ESRD is seen by the nurse for a Hep B vaccination. This patient is given a dialysis patient dosage as part of a three-dose schedule. The nurse administers the Hep B vaccine in the right deltoid. The physician reviews the chart and signs off on the nurse's note.
What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported for the scheduled vaccine injection for this Medicare patient?
- A. 90471, 90746, Z23, N18.6, Z99.2
- B. 90471, 90746, Z23, B19.10, N18.6, Z99.2
- C. G0010, 90740, Z23, N18.6, Z99.2
- D. 99211-25, G0010, 90740, B19.10, N18.6, Z99.2
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 62
The documentation states:
"A punch is placed and pushed downward to obtain a tissue sample for a biopsy of the lunula." What anatomical structure is being biopsied?
- A. Nail
- B. Eye
- C. Brain
- D. Skin
Answer: A
Explanation:
The lunula is the whitish, crescent-shaped area at the base of the fingernail or toenail.
It is part of the nail anatomy, specifically associated with nail growth.
Therefore, a biopsy of the lunula is a nail biopsy, making B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 63
(Patient presents to the office for the removal of15 actinic keratoseslesions. The provider destroys these lesions withlaser surgery. What CPT coding is reported for this visit?)
- A. 17110, 17111
- B. 17000, 17003
- C. 0
- D. 1
Answer: C
Explanation:
Actinic keratoses (AKs) are coded using thepremalignant lesion destructionCPT family17000-17004, regardless of the destruction method (e.g., laser, cryotherapy, electrosurgery), as long as the intent is destruction. Coding is based on thenumber of lesions treated in that session:17000covers thefirstlesion,
17003is an add-on code for2-14 additional lesions, and17004is used when treating15 or more lesions.
Because the encounter documents destruction of15 AK lesions, CPT requires reporting17004only (not 17000
+ multiple units of 17003). Codes17110/17111are for destruction ofbenignlesions (e.g., warts, molluscum), which is the wrong lesion category. On CPC exams, the key is matchingpremalignant vs benignand then selecting the correct code bylesion count threshold-here the threshold is met for17004.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A 65-year-old gentleman presents for refill of medications and follow-up for his chronic conditions. The patient indicates good medicine compliance. No new symptoms or complaints.
Appropriate history and exam are obtained. Labs that were ordered from previous visit were reviewed and discussed with patient. The following are the diagnoses and treatment:
Hypokalemia - stable. Refill Potassium 20 MEQ
Hypertension - blood pressure remaining stable. Patient states home readings have been in line with goals. Refill prescription Lisinopril.
Esophageal Reflux - Patient denies any new symptoms. Stable condition. Continue taking over the counter Prevacid oral capsules, 1 every day.
Patient is instructed to follow up in 3 months. Labs will be obtained prior to visit.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
The patient presented for a follow-up visit for chronic conditions, including hypokalemia, hypertension, and esophageal reflux. During this visit, the physician reviewed and discussed lab results, managed prescriptions, and noted that there were no new symptoms or complaints.
The level of service provided included an appropriate history and exam, as well as the management of multiple chronic conditions, which aligns with the criteria for CPT code 99214. This code is used for an established patient office or other outpatient visit that requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: a detailed history, a detailed examination, and medical decision-making of moderate complexity.
CPT Professional Edition, AMA
Evaluation and Management Coding Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 65
The surgeon performs Roux-en-Y anastomosis of the extrahepatic biliary duct to the gastrointestinal tract on a
45-year-old patient.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 66
(A trauma patient needs the following imaging:2 views nasal bones,3 views chest,2 views left forearm,2 views tibia/fibula. To exclude stroke, aCTA head with contrastis also ordered. What CPT coding is reported?)
- A. 70160-52, 71047, 73090, 73590, 70496
- B. 70160 × 2, 71047 × 3, 73090 × 2, 73590 × 2, 70460
- C. 70140, 71047 × 3, 73090 × 2, 73590 × 2, 70460
- D. 70150-52, 71047, 73090, 73562, 70496
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question tests matching each study to the correct radiology code family and recognizing CTA coding.
Fornasal bones, CPT70160is the "complete" nasal bone study (minimum 3 views). Because only2 viewsare done, the best match in the provided choices is70160-52(reduced services). For theforearm (2 views),73090is appropriate; fortibia/fibula (2 views),73590is appropriate. ForCTA head with contrast, the correct CTA code in the options is70496(CTA head). Option C is the only choice that correctly includes70496and the correct extremity X-ray codes73090and73590and also handles nasal bones as reduced service. The chest portion is imperfectly represented across the options (3-view chest typically aligns with a higher-view chest code than
71047), but the CPC-style best answerwithin the provided optionsisCbecause it captures the key intended learning targets: nasal bones reduced, correct extremity radiographs, and correct CTA head code.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A 67-year-old male presents with DJD and spondylolisthesis at L4-L5 The patient is placed prone on the operating table and, after induction of general anesthesia, the lower back is sterilely prepped and draped. One incision was made over L1-L5. This was confirmed with a probe under fluoroscopy. Laminectomies are done at vertebral segments L4 and L5 with facetectomies to relieve pressure to the nerve roots. Allograft was packed in the gutters from L1-L5 for a posterior arthrodesis. Pedicle screws were placed at L2, L3, and L4.
The construct was copiously irrigated and muscle; fascia and skin were closed in layers.
Select the procedure codes for this scenario.
- A. 63042, 63043, 22808, 22841 x 3
- B. 63005 x 2, 22612, 22614 x 3, 22842
- C. 63017, 63048, 22612, 22808, 22842 x 3
- D. 63047, 63048, 22612, 22614 x 3, 22842
Answer: D
Explanation:
Laminectomy and Facetectomy (63047 and 63048): The laminectomies at L4 and L5 with facetectomies fall under CPT codes 63047 (for the initial segment) and 63048 (for each additional segment).
Posterior Arthrodesis (22612 and 22614 x 3): The posterior arthrodesis from L1-L5 is coded with 22612 for the primary segment (L4-L5) and 22614 for each additional segment (L1-L4).
Placement of Pedicle Screws (22842): The placement of pedicle screws at L2, L3, and L4 is captured under CPT code 22842 for segmental instrumentation.
References:
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
ICD-10-CM (current year)
HCPCS Level II (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 68 
Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question:
View MR 004813
What CPTand ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
- A. 43752-52, K94.29, K44.9
- B. 43246, K94.29, Z93.1
- C. 43246-52, K94.29, K44.9
- D. 43752, K94.29, Z93.1
Answer: C
Explanation:
CPT Code 43246: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, with transoral insertion of intra-abdominal tube (e.g., gastrostomy or jejunostomy) This code describes the attempted PEG tube placement.
Modifier -52: Reduced services. This modifier is appended because the procedure was aborted and the PEG tube was not successfully placed.
ICD-10-CM Code K94.29: Other specified disorders of digestive system
This code captures the patient ' s chronic feeding requirement, which is the reason for the attempted PEG tube placement.
ICD-10-CM Code K44.9: Diaphragmatic hernia without obstruction or gangrene This code reports the small hiatal hernia that was found during the procedure.
References:
CPT Code 43246: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, with transoral insertion of intra-abdominal tube (e.g., gastrostomy or jejunostomy) Modifier 52: Reduced services ICD-10-CM Code K94.29: Other specified disorders of digestive system ICD-10-CM Code K44.9: Diaphragmatic hernia without obstruction or gangrene AAPC Coder ' s Desk Reference: This resource provides detailed information on coding guidelines and procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 69
(Which statement accurately reflects CPT parenthetical guidance for codes69209and69210?)
- A. The cerumen must be stated asimpactedto report either 69209 or 69210.
- B. When 69209 or 69210 is performed on both ears report the codetwice.
- C. Report codes 69209 and 69210 when both are performed on the same ear.
- D. Report an E/M code and either 69209 or 69210 when the cerumen is impacted.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Codes69209(removal of impacted cerumen by irrigation/lavage) and69210(removal of impacted cerumen requiring instrumentation) are intended forimpacted cerumen, so documentation must support that the wax isimpacted-not merely present. That makes optionBthe most accurate statement. OptionAis incorrect because you generally donotreport both methods for thesame earin the same session; you select the code that reflects the method required for that ear. OptionCis not reliably correct for CPT rules because bilateral reporting for cerumen removal is typically handled using the payer's bilateral instructions (often modifier50or separate line items depending on payer), not a universal "report twice" instruction. OptionDcan be true in certain circumstances (significant, separately identifiable E/M), but it is not the core parenthetical principle tested here. CPC exam focus: impacted requirement + select the correct method code.
NEW QUESTION # 70
(A 78-year-old patient withintermittent asthma with exacerbationis in her pulmonologist's office for pulmonary function testing. The pulmonologist performs spirometry with flow volume loops, measuring before and after administering a bronchodilator. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?)
- A. 94070, 94010, J45.901
- B. 94060, 94010, J45.21
- C. 94070, 94010, J45.21
- D. 94060, 94010, J45.901
Answer: B
Explanation:
Spirometry performedbefore and after bronchodilatoris coded with94060. That code includes the pre- and post-bronchodilator spirometry components as a single bundled service, so it already captures the "before and after" testing. The scenario also lists measurements like vital capacity/breathing capacity and flow volume, but the defining element for coding is thebronchodilator responsiveness testingcaptured by 94060. For diagnosis, "intermittent asthma with exacerbation" maps toJ45.21(mild intermittent asthma with (acute) exacerbation). CodeJ45.901represents "unspecified asthma with (acute) exacerbation" and is not as specific as the documented intermittent asthma. Options using94070do not represent spirometry pre/post bronchodilator testing; they are different pulmonary testing codes. CPC exam focus: choose the most specific asthma diagnosis available and recognize that94060already includes the pre/post testing, so adding a separate basic spirometry code in the same session is typically not correct, but the test's options explicitly pair 94060 and
94010-within those choices, optionBcorrectly matches the diagnosis specificity.
NEW QUESTION # 71
......
Verified Pass CPC Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed: https://prepaway.testinsides.top/CPC-dumps-review.html